Reliable ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Test Question | New ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Test Sims
Reliable ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Test Question | New ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Test Sims
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Hot Reliable ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Test Question | High Pass-Rate Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management: ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam 100% Pass
Preparing for the ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam (ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management) certification test can be a difficult task for candidates. They often face several challenges during their preparation for the ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam (ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management) exam, including fear, lack of updated ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Exam Dumps, and time constraints. Fortunately, there is a solution to these challenges. Prep4sures is a reliable website that provides genuine and updated ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Practice Test.
Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam Sample Questions (Q20-Q25):
NEW QUESTION # 20
An organization invested in the development and adoption of a common approach to release management.
Which metric will help the organization to understand if this initiative has been successful?
- A. The number of releases that were implemented after the target implementation date
- B. Alignment of release management procedures between the organization and its suppliers
- C. The satisfaction rating given by service consumers of individual releases
- D. The percentage of releases that do not result in incidents
Answer: D
Explanation:
A common approach to release management aims to improve the reliability and stability of releases. The ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument highlights key metrics for evaluating the success of release management:"Key metrics for release management often include the percentage of releases that do not result in incidents, as this indicates the stability and reliability of the release process"(Section 5.3).
* Option A (Alignment with suppliers) is a process improvement metric but doesn't directly measure the success of the release outcomes.
* Option B (The percentage of releases that do not result in incidents) directly measures the effectiveness of the release process by assessing its impact on service stability, aligning with the goal of a common approach to reduce errors and disruptions.
* Option C (Satisfaction rating) is a valuable metric but is more subjective and less directly tied to the operational success of a common approach.
* Option D (Number of delayed releases) measures timeliness but not the quality or stability of the releases.
The best metric to assess the success of a standardized release management approach is the reduction in incidents, making B the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 21
A service owner is initiating the release planning and coordination process for a complex project. What is an example of the FIRST activity that the service owner should undertake in this instance?
- A. Test the service components and take remedial action as necessary
- B. Check that an automated notification has been sent to stakeholders
- C. Ensure that the release procedures are appropriate for the particular release under consideration
- D. Select a release model that fits with the types of changes to be included in the release
Answer: D
Explanation:
The release planning and coordination process begins with defining the approach for the release. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument states:"The first step in release planning and coordination is to select an appropriate release model that fits the types of changes to be included in the release. This ensures that the release approach aligns with the nature and complexity of the changes"(Section 3.2.1).
* Option A (Test the service components) is part of the release execution or testing phase, not the first step in planning.
* Option B (Ensure that the release procedures are appropriate) is a subsequent step after selecting the model, to confirm procedural alignment.
* Option C (Select a release model) is the first activity, as it sets the foundation for how the release will be structured and managed, especially for a complex project.
* Option D (Check that an automated notification has been sent) occurs later, during the communication phase of the release process.
The correct answer is C, as selecting the release model is the initial step in release planning.
NEW QUESTION # 22
What automation tools should be used to help a release manager understand how the organization's services are related to one another?
- A. Enterprise architecture tools
- B. Work planning and prioritization tools
- C. Analysis and reporting tools
- D. Monitoring and event management tools
Answer: A
Explanation:
Understanding service relationships is critical for effective release management, especially to assess the impact of releases. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument states:"Enterprise architecture tools help release managers understand the relationships between services, applications, and infrastructure, enabling better impact analysis and dependency mapping for releases"(Section 4.2).
* Option A (Analysis and reporting tools) focuses on performance metrics, not service relationships.
* Option B (Work planning and prioritization tools) aids in scheduling, not understanding service dependencies.
* Option C (Monitoring and event management tools) is used for real-time performancetracking, not structural relationships.
* Option D (Enterprise architecture tools) is the correct choice, as these tools map out service relationships and dependencies, helping the release manager plan releases effectively.
The correct answer is D, as enterprise architecture tools are designed for this purpose.
NEW QUESTION # 23
An organization has a dedicated release management team that is effective in managing releases, but this team has very poor coordination with the change enablement team. What capability level of release management does this indicate?
- A. Level 4
- B. Level 1
- C. Level 3
- D. Level 2
Answer: D
Explanation:
The ITIL capability model evaluates not only the effectiveness of a practice but also its integrationwith other practices. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument states:"Level 2 (Managed) indicates that the practice is effective in its own scope but may lack integration with other practices. Level 3 (Defined) requires standardized processes and effective coordination with related practices like change enablement" (Section 5.2).
* The scenario shows that the release management team is effective (meeting Level 2), but poor coordination with the change enablement team indicates a lack of integration.
* Level 1 (Ad-hoc) would mean no consistent process, which isn't the case here since the team is effective.
* Level 3 requires integration and standardization across practices, which is not met due to poor coordination.
* Level 4 is even more advanced, requiring quantitative management, which isn't applicable.
The capability level is B (Level 2), as the practice is effective but lacks the integration needed for Level
3.
NEW QUESTION # 24
A release manager is considering the involvement of third parties in the release management practice. Which release management activity is likely to have a dependency on third parties?
- A. Performing a release according to an agreed model
- B. Release management alignment with other practices
- C. Identifying an applicable model for a release instance
- D. Verifying a release according to the release plan
Answer: A
Explanation:
Third parties, such as suppliers or vendors, often play a role in the execution of releases, especially when they provide components or services involved in the release. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management document states:"Performing a release according to an agreed model often involves dependencies on third parties, such as suppliers providing software updates, infrastructure, or support services, which need to be integrated during the release execution"(Section 3.4).
* Option A (Release management alignment with other practices) is an internal coordination activity, less likely to directly involve third parties.
* Option B (Identifying an applicable model) is a planning activity typically handled internally by the release manager.
* Option C (Performing a release according to an agreed model) directly involves executing the release, which often requires third-party components or services, creating a dependency.
* Option D (Verifying a release) may involve third-party tools but is less dependent on their active participation compared to execution.
The correct answer is C, as performing the release is the activity most likely to depend on third parties.
NEW QUESTION # 25
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